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Free NCLEX-PN practice questions

Tap an answer to see if you are right, and why. 20 questions across 3 topics, mostly Coordinated Care (9).

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Passing score: 85% (target)
Format: 85–150 items (CAT)
Bank: 300 Qs (20 free)
100% Sourced explanations

Questions last updated October 7, 2026 · Questions written from the 2026 NCLEX-PN Test Plan (NCSBN) and verified against its clinical judgment framework.

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  1. Coordinated Care1 of 20

    A client signs a living will but later tells the nurse they want full treatment regardless. How should the nurse respond?

    The answer

    Answer: C. The nurse should document the new verbal wishes and communicate them to the interdisciplinary team because the client retains the right to make healthcare decisions at any time Option A is incorrect because following an outdated document ignores the client's current wishes. Option D is incorrect because verbal statements take precedence over a previously signed document when the client is competent..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  2. Coordinated Care2 of 20

    A nurse is preparing to transfer a client to a rehabilitation facility. Which action should the nurse take first?

    The answer

    Answer: C. The nurse should first confirm acceptance by the receiving facility to prevent delays or gaps in care before proceeding with other transfer tasks Option A is incorrect because transportation arrangements come after confirming the facility can accept the client. Option D is incorrect because family notification is not the priority before transfer logistics are confirmed..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  3. Coordinated Care3 of 20

    A client refuses a blood transfusion on religious grounds. The nurse notes that the physician has ordered the transfusion. What is the nurse's priority action?

    The answer

    Answer: B. The nurse must document the refusal and notify the physician. The client has the right to refuse treatment, and the nurse advocates for informed decisions. Option A is incorrect because a physician order does not override a competent client's right to refuse. Option C is incorrect because persuading or coercing the client violates autonomy and informed consent. Option D is incorrect because an advocate cannot override a competent client's refusal.

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  4. Coordinated Care4 of 20

    A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client. The nurse sees a do-not-resuscitate order. What should the nurse do first?

    The answer

    Answer: D. The nurse should verify the DNR order is valid and then communicate it to the interdisciplinary team to ensure consistent care Option A is incorrect because only relevant staff need to know about the DNR order, not the entire nursing staff. Option C is incorrect because alerts should be placed only after the order is verified and communicated..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  5. Coordinated Care5 of 20

    A nurse is caring for a client who speaks only Spanish. An interpreter is not available. The nurse should use which approach?

    The answer

    Answer: D. Using a translation app with documentation is appropriate when a qualified interpreter is unavailable. Family members should not interpret due to confidentiality concerns. Option A is incorrect because family members may misinterpret and confidentiality is breached. Option B is incorrect because delaying needed care while waiting is unsafe. Option C is incorrect because gestures alone cannot ensure accurate clinical communication.

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  6. Coordinated Care6 of 20

    A nurse is conducting a shift report using bedside handoff. Which element should the nurse include first?

    The answer

    Answer: B. Bedside handoff should begin with current vital signs and changes in condition to ensure continuity of care and early identification of deterioration Option A is incorrect because a full medication history review is not the priority during bedside handoff. Option C is incorrect because diagnostic test results are not typically included in bedside handoff reports..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  8. Coordinated Care7 of 20

    A nurse discovers that a colleague has been taking medication from a client's prescription. What is the nurse's responsibility?

    The answer

    Answer: A. The nurse has a legal and ethical obligation to report suspected diversion or substance abuse to a supervisor to protect client safety Option B is incorrect because confronting the colleague privately may not stop the diversion and does not fulfill the reporting obligation. Option D is incorrect because anonymous documentation without reporting does not protect client safety..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  9. Coordinated Care8 of 20

    A nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client with heart failure. The teach-back method is used. The client repeats the information incorrectly. What should the nurse do?

    The answer

    Answer: C. The nurse should use alternative teaching methods and repeat until the client accurately demonstrates understanding, ensuring safe self-care after discharge Option A is incorrect because repeating the same failed teaching method is ineffective. Option B is incorrect because documenting incomplete teaching is unsafe and dishonest..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  10. Coordinated Care9 of 20

    A nurse is reviewing advance directives with a client who has designated a healthcare proxy. What does this document mean for the proxy?

    The answer

    Answer: B. A healthcare proxy is legally authorized to make healthcare decisions only when the client is unable to make them independently Option A is incorrect because a healthcare proxy makes healthcare, not financial, decisions. Option C is incorrect because the proxy does not need to be a licensed attorney..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Coordinated Care, 18-24%

  11. Safety and Infection Control10 of 20

    A nurse is caring for a client in droplet precautions. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

    The answer

    Answer: A. Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when within 3 feet and hand hygiene before and after contact. Option B is incorrect because N95 respirators are reserved for airborne precautions. Option C is incorrect because negative-pressure rooms are for airborne precautions, not droplet Option A is incorrect because N95 respirators are reserved for airborne precautions, not droplet. Option C is incorrect because gown and gloves alone do not protect against droplet transmission..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Safety & Infection Control, 10-16%

  12. Safety and Infection Control11 of 20

    A nurse accidentally sticks a finger on a used needle after drawing blood from a client. What should the nurse do first?

    The answer

    Answer: B. The nurse should immediately wash the wound, report to the supervisor, and follow the facility's post-exposure protocol to minimize infection risk Option A is incorrect because filing a report is important but not the first action after exposure. Option C is incorrect because the nurse's own wound care takes priority over notifying the client's physician..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Safety & Infection Control, 10-16%

  13. Safety and Infection Control12 of 20

    A nurse enters a client's room and notices a fire is smoldering in the oxygen tubing. What is the first action?

    The answer

    Answer: B. The first step is to remove the oxygen source and extinguish the fire. RACE protocol begins with Rescue, which includes removing the ignition source Option A is incorrect because pulling the alarm should come after removing the oxygen source and extinguishing. Option C is incorrect because closing the door does not remove the ignition source..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Safety & Infection Control, 10-16%

  14. Safety and Infection Control13 of 20

    A client with active tuberculosis is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which isolation precaution should be initiated?

    The answer

    Answer: C. Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, including a negative-pressure room and an N95 respirator, because the organism is transmitted via droplet nuclei Option A is incorrect because droplet precautions are insufficient for TB transmission. Option D is incorrect because standard precautions do not prevent airborne pathogen spread..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Safety & Infection Control, 10-16%

  15. Safety and Infection Control14 of 20

    A nurse is caring for a client who requires restraints. Which documentation is essential?

    The answer

    Answer: A. Documentation must include the type of restraint, time of application, assessments of circulation and skin integrity, and the client's response Option A is incorrect because documenting only that restraints were applied is insufficient for legal compliance. Option C is incorrect because the physician's order alone does not satisfy documentation requirements..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Safety & Infection Control, 10-16%

  16. Safety and Infection Control15 of 20

    A nurse is teaching a client about safe sharps disposal at home. Which statements should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

    The answer

    Answer: A. Sharps must go in puncture-resistant containers and sealed when three-quarters full to prevent needlestick injuries. Option B is incorrect because regular plastic bags do not prevent injuries from exposed needles. Option D is incorrect because breaking needles is dangerous and creates additional injury risk Option B is incorrect because wrapping needles in newspaper does not prevent needlestick injuries. Option D is incorrect because breaking needles creates an additional injury hazard..

    Source: Safe/Effective Care — Safety & Infection Control, 10-16%

  17. Health Promotion and Maintenance16 of 20

    A parent asks the nurse when their child should receive the first MMR vaccination. What is the correct response?

    The answer

    Answer: D. The first MMR vaccine is given between 12 and 15 months, with a booster at 4 to 6 years Option A is incorrect because the MMR vaccine is not given at 6 months. Option C is incorrect because delaying until age 2 leaves the child unprotected during a high-risk period..

    Source: Health Promotion & Maintenance, 6-12%

  19. Health Promotion and Maintenance17 of 20

    A nurse is performing a developmental screening on a 9-month-old infant. Which finding would the nurse report to the physician?

    The answer

    Answer: C. Failure to babble or respond to name at 9 months is a developmental delay that warrants further evaluation by the physician Option A is incorrect because rolling from back to stomach is a normal 4-6 month milestone. Option B is incorrect because sitting without support is expected by 6-8 months..

    Source: Health Promotion & Maintenance, 6-12%

  20. Health Promotion and Maintenance18 of 20

    A pregnant client at 28 weeks asks about exercise. Which response is most appropriate?

    The answer

    Answer: B. Moderate exercises such as walking and swimming are generally safe during pregnancy, unless the provider has specified activity restrictions Option A is incorrect because exercise is generally safe throughout pregnancy with appropriate modifications. Option C is incorrect because heavy weightlifting poses risks to the pregnancy..

    Source: Health Promotion & Maintenance, 6-12%

  21. Health Promotion and Maintenance19 of 20

    A nurse is teaching an adolescent about skin cancer prevention. Which instruction is most important?

    The answer

    Answer: A. All individuals should use broad-spectrum sunscreen with SPF 15 or higher and avoid tanning beds to reduce skin cancer risk Option B is incorrect because UV rays penetrate clouds and can cause damage year-round. Option C is incorrect because all skin types are susceptible to UV damage..

    Source: Health Promotion & Maintenance, 6-12%

  22. Health Promotion and Maintenance20 of 20

    A nurse is teaching a postmenopausal client about osteoporosis prevention. Which recommendation is most appropriate?

    The answer

    Answer: B. Weight-bearing exercise and adequate calcium intake are key strategies for maintaining bone density in postmenopausal women Option A is incorrect because caffeine increases calcium loss and weakens bones. Option C is incorrect because dairy products are a primary calcium source for bone health..

    Source: Health Promotion & Maintenance, 6-12%

Official Test Specs & Sourced Summary

The official NCLEX-PN knowledge examination covers 85–150 items (CAT) with a passing threshold of 85%. Questions written from the 2026 NCLEX-PN Test Plan (NCSBN) and verified against its clinical judgment framework. Every question on this page is original, with an explanation and a note citing its source.

Passing Score85% target
Format85–150 items (CAT) · 15 unscored pretest items
Question Bank300 questions (20 free)
Verified Source2026 NCSBN NCLEX-PN Test Plan & Clinical Judgment Measurement Model

That’s the free set. The full bank has 300.

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