CompTIA A+ practice test/Free questions
CompTIA A+ Core 1 · 40 free questions
CompTIA A+ Practice Questions and Answers
Every free Core 1 question with its answer, the reason each wrong choice is wrong, and the objective it comes from. Pick an answer to check yourself.
23% of Core 112 questions
CompTIA A+ networking questions: ports, IP addresses and Wi-Fi
Port numbers, DHCP and APIPA, subnets and NAT, Wi-Fi standards and the tools for cabling.
Which port does HTTPS use by default?
Answer: A. Port 443
HTTPS encrypts web traffic over port 443. Port 21 is FTP, 80 is HTTP, and 8080 is an alternate HTTP port.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
A workstation shows an APIPA address. What does this indicate?
Answer: B. DHCP server is not responding
An address in 169.254.0.0/16 is APIPA, which Windows assigns itself when it asks for a DHCP lease and no DHCP server answers. A wrong default gateway would leave a valid DHCP address in place and only break traffic leaving the subnet. An unreachable DNS server breaks name lookups but does not change the IP address the PC received. A manually entered static address, even with a bad mask, never triggers APIPA because DHCP is not used.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
`nslookup www.example.com` returns no response. What is the most likely issue?
Answer: D. DNS unreachable
nslookup asks the configured DNS server to resolve a name, so getting no reply at all means the DNS server cannot be reached or is not answering. A wrong gateway could block a remote DNS server, but it would also break all off-subnet traffic and is a less direct match. A disabled switch port would cut every network connection, not only name lookups. An expired SSL certificate is a browser warning that appears after the name has already resolved.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
Which wireless standard is 5 GHz only with channels up to 160 MHz wide?
Answer: A. 802.11ac
802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) runs only in the 5 GHz band and added 80 MHz and 160 MHz channel widths. 802.11n works on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz but tops out at 40 MHz channels. 802.11g is a 2.4 GHz-only standard with 20 MHz channels. 802.11b is also 2.4 GHz only and is the slowest of the four, at 11 Mbps.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
Which protocol provides encrypted file transfer over port 22?
Answer: A. SFTP
SFTP runs inside an SSH session on TCP port 22, encrypting both login credentials and file contents. HTTP uses port 80 and sends data in clear text. FTP uses ports 20 and 21 and sends passwords unencrypted. TFTP uses UDP port 69, has no authentication or encryption, and is used for simple tasks such as loading device firmware.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
Which wireless standard added support for the 6 GHz frequency band?
Answer: D. Wi-Fi 6E
Wi-Fi 6E is the extension of Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) into the 6 GHz band, adding many clean, non-overlapping channels. Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) works only at 5 GHz. Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n) uses 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Plain Wi-Fi 6 also stops at 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz; the 6 GHz support is what the E adds.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
A company needs to translate private internal addresses to public addresses for internet access. Which technology is used?
Answer: A. Network Address Translation
NAT rewrites private source addresses, such as 192.168.x.x, to the router's public address so internal hosts can reach the internet. QoS ranks traffic by priority. DNS forwarding passes name queries to an upstream resolver. Spanning Tree Protocol stops switching loops and does not translate addresses.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
Which port number is used by SSH for secure remote command-line access?
Answer: B. 22
SSH runs on TCP port 22 and encrypts the whole remote shell session, including the login. Port 3389 is Remote Desktop Protocol for graphical sessions. Port 23 is Telnet, which sends everything in clear text. Port 445 carries SMB file and printer sharing.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
A technician runs ipconfig and sees a valid IP but the default gateway is 0.0.0.0. What does this indicate?
Answer: A. No default gateway is configured
A gateway of 0.0.0.0 next to a valid address means no default gateway is set, so the PC can talk to its local subnet but cannot route off it. A disabled NIC would show no IP configuration at all. The output says nothing about DNS. If the DHCP server were down, the PC would usually fall back to a 169.254.x.x APIPA address.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
A technician runs ipconfig and sees a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. How many usable host addresses does this provide?
Answer: D. 254
A 255.255.255.0 mask leaves 8 host bits, which gives 256 addresses; the all-zeros network address and the all-ones broadcast address cannot be assigned, so 254 hosts remain. The figure 256 counts those two reserved addresses. The number 512 would need 9 host bits, a /23. A count of 128 matches a /25 block, before subtracting its two reserved addresses.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
A technician needs to trace a cable through a wall without running alongside it. Which tool identifies the cable?
Answer: A. Tone generator and probe
A tone generator sends a signal through the cable and a probe detects it at the other end, allowing identification without visual tracing.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 23%
A technician needs to verify that a newly installed Cat6 cable is wired to the T568B standard at both ends. Which tool should be used?
Answer: D. Cable tester that checks pin-to-pin continuity and pair mapping
A cable tester verifies correct wire mapping and continuity for each pin pair. Tone generators trace cables through walls. Multimeters check basic continuity but not pair ordering. Packet sniffers analyze traffic, not physical wiring.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Networking, 2.0
25% of Core 112 questions
CompTIA A+ hardware questions: RAID, RAM, storage and printers
RAID levels, memory, SATA and NVMe drives, displays and the laser printer.
A user upgrades RAM from DDR4-2400 to DDR4-3200. What must they verify first?
Answer: D. Motherboard supports speed
Faster memory only runs at its rated speed if the motherboard chipset and CPU memory controller support DDR4-3200; otherwise it falls back to a lower speed. A heat spreader helps cooling but has no bearing on compatibility. An 80 Plus rating describes power supply efficiency, and RAM draws very little power. Module color is cosmetic and does not affect whether the board can run it.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
Which RAID level mirrors data across two drives for real-time redundancy?
Answer: A. RAID 1
RAID 1 writes identical copies of the data to two drives, so either drive can fail without data loss. RAID 0 stripes data across drives for speed and loses everything if one fails. RAID 5 protects data with distributed parity across at least three drives instead of a plain mirror. RAID 10 does mirror, but it combines mirroring with striping and needs at least four drives.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
What is the primary benefit of ECC memory over non-ECC?
Answer: D. Error detection
ECC memory carries extra check bits that let it detect and correct single-bit errors, which is why servers and workstations use it. It does not pack more capacity onto a module than non-ECC memory. The extra chip and checking logic add a little power draw rather than reducing it. ECC modules usually run at the same or slightly lower clock speeds than non-ECC memory.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
A user wants to add a second monitor to a laptop with only a USB-C port. Which adapter is needed?
Answer: B. USB-C to DisplayPort
A USB-C to DisplayPort adapter works when the laptop's USB-C port supports DisplayPort Alt Mode or Thunderbolt, letting it drive a second monitor. PS/2 is a legacy keyboard and mouse port and cannot carry video. A DVI to HDMI adapter needs a DVI output, which this laptop does not have. A USB-A to HDMI adapter needs a USB-A port, and this laptop has only USB-C.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
Which RAID level stripes data across three or more drives with distributed parity?
Answer: A. RAID 5
RAID 5 stripes data and parity blocks across at least three drives and survives the loss of any single drive. RAID 0 stripes data with no parity, so one failure loses the array. RAID 1 mirrors two drives instead of using parity. RAID 6 uses two sets of distributed parity, needs at least four drives and survives two failures.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
Which type of printer uses a fuser to melt toner onto paper?
Answer: C. Laser
Laser printers pass the page through a fuser, where a heated roller and a pressure roller bond the toner to the paper. Inkjet printers spray liquid ink from nozzles and have no toner or fuser. Thermal printers create images by heating special paper or a ribbon. Dot matrix printers strike an inked ribbon with a row of pins.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
Which RAID level combines mirroring and striping for both performance and fault tolerance?
Answer: A. RAID 10
RAID 10 (1+0) builds mirrored pairs and then stripes across them, giving fast reads and writes and surviving a drive failure in each pair; it needs at least four drives. RAID 5 stripes data with distributed parity rather than mirroring. RAID 1 mirrors two drives but does not stripe. RAID 0 stripes for speed and loses everything if one drive fails.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
A laptop battery shows 100% charge but the system dies when unplugged. What is the most likely issue?
Answer: D. Battery cell failure
Worn lithium-ion cells can show a full reading at rest yet collapse under load, so the laptop shuts off as soon as the charger is removed. A BIOS power setting would not make a charged battery fail instantly. A corrupted power driver could misreport charge but would not cut power. The AC adapter is not even in use once the laptop is unplugged.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
Which printer technology uses a heated printhead to darken special heat-sensitive paper?
Answer: C. Direct thermal printing
A direct thermal printer heats spots on chemically coated paper, turning them dark with no ink or ribbon, which is how receipt printers work. Inkjet printers spray liquid ink onto plain paper. Laser printers fuse toner to paper with heat and pressure. Dye sublimation heats dye from a ribbon so it turns to gas and bonds to the paper, mostly for photos.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
A laptop uses a 2.5-inch SATA SSD. The user wants better performance. Which upgrade provides the biggest speed increase?
Answer: D. Replace with an M.2 NVMe SSD
NVMe drives talk to the CPU over PCIe lanes and reach several thousand MB/s, while a SATA SSD tops out near 550 MB/s because of the 6 Gb/s interface; that gain needs a laptop with an M.2 slot that supports NVMe. A faster CPU rarely helps with storage-bound waits, and laptop CPUs are usually soldered. More RAM helps only if the system is short on memory. A larger SATA SSD adds space but keeps the same speed limit.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
A shipping office must print three-part carbonless invoice forms in a single pass. Which printer type should it buy?
Answer: C. Impact printer
An impact (dot matrix) printer strikes an ink ribbon with pins, and that physical pressure transfers the image through every layer of a carbonless multipart form. A laser printer fuses toner onto one sheet without striking it, so the copies underneath stay blank. An inkjet sprays ink onto the top sheet only. A direct thermal printer darkens heat-sensitive paper and cannot press through stacked forms.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 25%
A technician replaces a CPU cooler on a high-performance workstation. After reassembly the CPU overheats within minutes. The cooler fan is spinning. What should the technician check first?
Answer: D. Whether thermal paste was applied between the CPU and cooler before mounting
Without thermal paste, or with the plastic film still on the cooler base, air gaps keep heat from reaching the heatsink, and the CPU overheats within minutes even with the fan spinning. Case fan headers affect overall airflow, not contact at the CPU. A cooler fan needs only a few watts, so PSU capacity is not the issue. A quiet fan curve raises temperatures gradually but rarely causes overheating within minutes.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware, 3.0
28% of Core 17 questions
CompTIA A+ troubleshooting questions
Symptoms and first checks: beep codes, blue screens, overheating, boot failures and network faults.
A PC powers on with repeated long beeps before POST. What does this indicate?
Answer: C. RAM error
On many BIOS implementations, such as AMI and Award, repeating long beeps signal that memory is missing, unseated or failed, though codes vary by vendor and the motherboard manual is the final reference. A keyboard fault is normally reported after video starts, with an on-screen message. A failed drive shows up as a boot error after POST, not as a beep pattern. An audio problem would not stop POST or trigger firmware beep codes.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware and Network Troubleshooting, 28%
A laptop has intermittent blue screens and faulty RAM is suspected. Which tool runs first?
Answer: C. Memory Diagnostic
Windows Memory Diagnostic (mdsched.exe) reboots the PC and tests RAM directly, which is the right tool when bad memory is suspected. Device Manager lists hardware and drivers but does not test memory cells. Event Viewer can show that a blue screen happened and its stop code, but it cannot confirm faulty RAM. Disk Management handles partitions and volumes and has nothing to do with memory.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware and Network Troubleshooting, 28%
`ipconfig` shows 169.254.x.x and renewing fails. What is the next step?
Answer: B. Check DHCP server
When ipconfig shows a 169.254.x.x address and ipconfig /renew fails, the PC cannot reach a DHCP server, so check that server and the path to it, such as the cable and switch port. Changing the browser has no effect on IP addressing. Reinstalling Windows is drastic and does not fix an unreachable DHCP server. Replacing the NIC is premature until the server and connection are ruled out.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware and Network Troubleshooting, 28%
A user reports an intermittent network connection. The cable passed a cable test, and a loopback plug shows the NIC port is good. Which tool should the technician use next?
Answer: A. Protocol analyzer
With the cable and port already tested, a protocol analyzer such as Wireshark can capture traffic over time and reveal retransmissions, malformed frames or dropped sessions when the problem appears. A multimeter measures voltage and resistance and cannot interpret network traffic. Running the cable tester again repeats a test that already passed. The loopback plug has also cleared the port, so repeating it adds nothing.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware and Network Troubleshooting, 28%
A 2.4 GHz wireless network shows a strong signal but very slow speeds. What is the most likely cause?
Answer: B. Microwave oven
Microwave ovens leak energy around 2.45 GHz, right in the 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi band, so they cause heavy interference that slows throughput even when signal strength looks good. A wrong SSID would mean the device is on a different network or not connected at all. VPN encryption adds some overhead but does not explain a sharp drop on the wireless link itself. Distance from the access point would show up as a weak signal, which is not the case.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware and Network Troubleshooting, 28%
A PC displays a blue screen with error code IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL. What should the technician check first?
Answer: A. Recently installed drivers
IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL means kernel-mode code, usually a driver, tried to reach memory it was not allowed to touch, so a newly installed or updated driver is the first suspect. A loose monitor cable causes a blank screen, not a stop error. Drive health problems usually produce other stop codes or disk errors. Power supply faults tend to cause sudden shutdowns or reboots without this message.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware and Network Troubleshooting, 28%
A desktop powers on but the screen remains blank with no error beeps. The DRAM status LED on the motherboard stays lit. What should the technician check first?
Answer: B. Reseat the RAM modules and verify they are fully locked in the DIMM slots
A lit DRAM debug LED means the board failed its memory check, so reseating the modules until the latches lock is the first step. USB devices rarely stop POST at the memory stage. Reinstalling the OS cannot help when the system never gets past firmware tests. A higher-wattage power supply does not fix a module that is not making good contact.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Hardware and Network Troubleshooting, 5.0
13% of Core 14 questions
CompTIA A+ mobile device questions
Charging and batteries, NFC, display types and mobile device management.
A smartphone charges slowly and drains quickly. What should the technician check first?
Answer: A. Charging cable and port
Check the charging cable and port first, because a frayed cable or lint packed into the port is the most common cause of slow charging and costs nothing to rule out. Replacing the battery comes later, once a known-good charger still charges slowly. An OS update can fix a power-hungry bug but does not explain slow charging. A factory reset erases user data and should come only after the hardware path has been checked.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Mobile Devices, 13%
Which mobile component enables contactless payment at retail terminals?
Answer: B. Near Field Communication
Near Field Communication (NFC) handles tap-to-pay because it exchanges data only within a few centimeters, which is what payment terminals use. Infrared needs line of sight and is not used by retail payment readers. Bluetooth Low Energy pairs with headphones, watches and sensors, not with checkout terminals. Miracast mirrors a screen to a display over Wi-Fi Direct and has nothing to do with payments.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Mobile Devices, 13%
Which mobile display technology offers the deepest black levels and saves power when showing dark content?
Answer: C. OLED
OLED pixels emit their own light, so a black pixel is simply switched off, giving true black and drawing almost no power for dark areas. IPS LCD panels use a backlight that stays on, so blacks look gray and power use does not drop with dark images. VA LCD panels have better contrast than IPS but still rely on a backlight. CCFL LCD uses an older fluorescent backlight that draws more power than LED backlights.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Mobile Devices, 13%
A technician needs to lock a lost corporate phone remotely. Which MDM action is appropriate?
Answer: A. Send a remote lock command from the MDM console
An MDM remote lock forces the device behind a passcode while keeping its data intact, which suits a phone that may still be found. Turning off the company Wi-Fi does nothing once the phone is on cellular or another network. Texting the finder relies on a stranger and secures nothing. An immediate factory reset destroys any chance of recovering the device's data and is normally held back until recovery is ruled out.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Mobile Devices, 13%
11% of Core 15 questions
CompTIA A+ virtualization and cloud questions
Type 1 and type 2 hypervisors, snapshots, and the cloud service and deployment models.
Which hypervisor type runs directly on hardware without a host OS?
Answer: D. Type 1 bare-metal
A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor such as VMware ESXi or Microsoft Hyper-V Server installs straight onto the server hardware with no host OS underneath. A Type 2 hypervisor such as VirtualBox runs as an application on top of Windows, macOS or Linux. A container runtime shares a host OS kernel and does not virtualize hardware. An app sandbox isolates a single program inside an existing operating system.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Virtualization and Cloud Computing, 11%
A cloud provider manages the OS and runtime while the developer controls the app and data. Which model?
Answer: A. PaaS
In Platform as a Service the provider runs the servers, operating system and runtime, and the developer deploys only the application and its data. SaaS delivers a finished application, so the customer controls neither code nor runtime. DaaS (Desktop as a Service) streams virtual desktops to users. IaaS supplies virtual machines, storage and networks, leaving the customer to manage the OS and runtime.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Virtualization and Cloud Computing, 11%
Which feature captures a VM's point-in-time state for later rollback?
Answer: D. Snapshot
A snapshot records a VM's disk and memory state at one moment so the administrator can roll back after a failed update. Cloning creates a separate, independent copy of the VM rather than a restore point. Load balancing spreads traffic across several servers. Resource pooling groups CPU, memory and storage from many hosts so they can be shared among VMs.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Virtualization and Cloud Computing, 11%
Which hypervisor type requires a host operating system to run?
Answer: B. Type 2
A Type 2 hypervisor, such as VirtualBox or VMware Workstation, installs as an application inside Windows, macOS or Linux. Type 1 and bare-metal are two names for the same thing: a hypervisor that runs directly on the hardware with no host OS. Hardware-assisted virtualization refers to CPU features such as Intel VT-x and AMD-V, not to a hypervisor type.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Virtualization and Cloud Computing, 11%
Which cloud deployment model combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services?
Answer: D. Hybrid cloud
A hybrid cloud links an organization's own data center or private cloud with public cloud services, letting workloads and data move between them. A public cloud uses only a provider's shared infrastructure. A private cloud is dedicated to one organization and does not include public services. A community cloud is shared by a group of organizations with similar requirements.
Objective: CompTIA A+ 220-1201 — Virtualization and Cloud Computing, 11%
Keep practicing
Time yourself on the same questions, then learn the ports and steps the exam asks about.
- Take a timed mock examA clock, then a score by domain
- CompTIA A+ cheat sheetPorts, RAID, Wi-Fi on one page
- Core 1 vs Core 2What each exam covers
- The full study planDomains, ports, troubleshooting